On the Fact that Germany and the Soviet Union BOTH Invaded Poland but it was Only Germany that the Brits and the French Declared War On

You see, this is what makes me mad; two identical acts of aggression and, yet, two different responses and no moral clarity. Add to that the fact that the Germans had at the very least a modicum of justification (the fact that Danzig and East Prussia had literally been stolen from Germany after WW1, the fact that numerous ethnic Germans were being brutalized by the Poles, the fact that many in Poland had dreamt of a greater Poland that extended all the way to Berlin, etc.) and it is even more hypocritical this moronic war guarantee of Chamberlain and Churchill.